Musculoskeletal System Disorders Quizzes

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Cell

Cell Quiz I

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1. Which cell organelles contain an acidic environment capable of digesting a wide variety of molecules?

1. Lysosomes

2. Ribosomes

3. Centrosomes

4. Golgi complex

A: The prefix “lyso-” refers to the ability to dissolve or destroy molecules or cells.

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2. Organelles that neutralize drugs and toxins are___

1. Nuclei

2. Mitochondria

3. Lysosomes

4. Peroxisomes

D: Peroxisomes contain oxidases capable of combining oxygen with_x000d_hydrogen ions derived from different intracellular chemicals to form_x000d_hydrogen peroxide (H2O2), a highly oxidizing substance used in_x000d_association with catalase, another oxidase enzyme present in large_x000d_quantities in peroxisomes. These enzymes oxidize and neutralize many_x000d_drugs and toxins that might otherwise be poisonous to the cell.

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3. Which of the following is a function of membrane proteins?

1. To process lipids and proteins for secretion through the plasma membrane

2. To act as receptors for hormones

3. To synthesise proteins from amino acids

4. To act as a cytoskeleton to support and shape the cell

B: One function of membrane proteins is to receive (amino acid-based) hormones that cannot pass through the plasma membrane.

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4. Which of the following is NOT one of the organelles within a cell?

1. Desmosome

2. Endoplasmic reticulum

3. Mitochondrion

4. Golgi apparatus

A: Desmosomes (despite having the suffix “-some”) are not within the cell. They are structures that join adjacent plasma membranes to each other.

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5. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for producing adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the energy currency of the cell?

1. Endoplasmic reticulum

2. Mitochondria

3. Golgi apparatus

4. Ribosomes

B: Mitochondria are often called the “powerhouses” of the cell and contain oxidative enzymes that permit oxidation of the nutrients, thereby forming carbon dioxide and water and at the same time_x000d_releasing energy. The liberated energy is used to synthesize “highenergy” ATP.

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6. What is the name of the mechanism that ensures that there is a higher concentration of sodium ions in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid?

1. Facilitated diffusion

2. The sodium-potassium pump

3. Secondary active transport

4. Osmosis

B: The “pump” (or ATPase) transports Na+ out and K+ into the cell.

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7. The most abundant cell membrane lipids are___

1. Sphingolipids

2. Phospholipids

3. Cholesterol

4. Triglycerides

B: The basic cell membrane lipid bilayer is composed of proteins and three main types of lipids: phospholipids, sphingolipids, and cholesterol. The approximate composition is 55% proteins, 25% phospholipids, 13% cholesterol, 4% other lipids, and 3% carbohydrates.

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8. The plasma membrane of a cell contains molecules that have a hydrophobic end and a hydrophilic end. What are they called?

1. Phospholipids

2. Cholesterol

3. Integral proteins

4. Glycoproteins

A: The phosphate end is hydrophilic (water soluble), while the lipid end is hydrophobic (insoluble in water).

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9. Which of the following cell types denote an immature cell?

1. Macrophages

2. Monocytes

3. Osteoblasts

4. Ribosomes

C: The suffix “-blast” indicates that the cell is immature.

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10. Active transport across the plasma membrane may be described by which statement?

1. Active transport requires energy from ATP.

2. Active transport is also known as endocytosis.

3. Active transport moves molecules along their concentration gradient.

4. Active transport is the movement of lipid-soluble molecules through the plasma membrane.

A: This is the only correct answer. The others are not true.

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11. Which of the following is NOT a component of the cell plasma membrane?

1. Cholesterol

2. Proteins

3. Microfilaments

4. Phospholipids

C: Microfilaments occur inside the cell.

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12. Which statement about the plasma membrane is INCORRECT?

1. It is selectively permeable.

2. It is composed of two layers of glycoprotein molecules

3. It contains receptors for specific signaling molecules.

4. The plasma membranes of adjacent cells are held together by desmosomes.

B: The plasma membrane is indeed made of two layers, but they are phospholipid (not glycoprotein) molecules.

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13. The first stage of mitosis is called___

1. Anaphase

2. Prophase

3. Metaphase

4. Telophase

B: The first stage of mitosis, the process by which the cell splits into two new cells, is called prophase_x000d__x000d_

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14. In which part of a cell does the process of making ATP from oxygen and glucose take place?

1. Lysosomes

2. Ribosomes

3. Mitochondria

4. Golgi apparatus

C: ATP production is the function of mitochondria.

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15. Which of the following is NOT part of the plasma membrane of a cell?

1. Integral proteins

2. Glycoproteins

3. Plasma proteins

4. Peripheral proteins

C: Plasma proteins are found in the blood plasma. Not to be confused with the plasma membrane.

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16. Which of the following is NOT part of the plasma membrane of a cell?

1. Phospholipid

2. Glycoprotein

3. Chromatin

4. Cholesterol

C: Chromatin makes up chromosomes.

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17. Which of the following is NOT an example of a cell?

1. Macrophages

2. Lysosomes

3. Plasmocytes

4. Chondroblasts

B: The suffix “-some” refers to an organelle within a cell. The other suffixes all indicate a type of cell.

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18. What is the function of phospholipids in the plasma membrane?

1. What is the function of phospholipids in the plasma membrane?

2. To form channels to selectively allow passage of small molecules

3. To act as receptors for signaling chemicals

4. To present a barrier to the passage of water-soluble molecules

D: Molecules that are soluble in water cannot pass through lipid (fat). So the phospholipids are a barrier. The functions described by B and C are performed by other molecules in the plasma membrane.

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19. Facilitated diffusion refers to the process of___

1. Movement along a concentration gradient assisted by protein carrier molecules

2. Movement of ions and molecules along a concentration gradient

3. Transport of molecules and ions against their concentration gradient

4. Water movement through a semipermeable membrane

A: Facilitated refers to the role of the protein carriers. The other choices refer to diffusion, active transport and osmosis, respectively.

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20. What are lysosomes, centrosomes and ribosomes example of?

1. Stem cells

2. Organelles within a cell

3. Sensory receptors in the dermis

4. Exocrine glands

B: The suffix “-some” refers to small body or organelle within a cell.

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21. Which structure within the cell produces ATP (adenosine triphosphate)?

1. The mitochondria

2. The nucleus

3. Peripheral proteins

4. The endoplasmic reticulum

A: This is a basic function of mitochondria. All other answers are wrong.

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22. The process of “diffusion” through a membrane may be described by which of the following?

1. The movement of ions and molecules away from regions where they are in high concentration towards regions where they are in lower concentration.

2. The use of energy from ATP to move ions and small molecules into regions where they are in lower concentration.

3. The plasma membrane engulfs the substance and moves it through the membrane.

4. The use of energy from ATP to move water molecules against their concentration gradient

A: The choices with ATP are not true. While choice C refers to endocytosis.

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23. A major role for mitochondria is to:

1. Transcribe the information in DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

2. Produce ATP (adenosine triphosphate)

3. Synthesize proteins from amino acids

4. Use enzymes to lyse molecules

B: ATP is only produced within the mitochondria.

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24. Most cells, except for fat cells, are composed mainly of___

1. Proteins

2. Ions

3. Water

4. Microfilaments/cell cytoskeleton

C: Most cells, except for fat cells, are composed mainly of water in a concentration of 70% to 85 %. After water, the most abundant substances in most cells are proteins, which normally constitute 10% to 20 % of the cell mass.

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25. Which form of transport through the plasma membrane requires the expenditure of energy by the cell?

1. Facilitated diffusion

2. Osmosis

3. Active transport

4. Diffusion

C: The term “active” implies using energy (in the form of ATP) to move a molecule against its concentration gradient while the other processes are all passive.

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Cell

Cell Quiz II

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1. Which of the following is the smallest living structural unit of the body?

1. Atom

2. Molecule

3. Organelle

4. Cell

D: The cell is smallest structural unit that is deemed to be alive.

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2. The fluidity of the plasma membrane is due to___

1. Phospholipids

2. Cholesterol

3. Glycolipids

4. Glycoproteins

B: Cholesterol is an amphipathic lipid and as such is an essential structural component of membranes, where it is important for the maintenance of the correct permeability and fluidity, and of the outer layer of plasma lipoproteins.

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3. Which of the following events does not occur during the process of mitosis?

1. Condensation of the chromosomes

2. Replication of the genome

3. Fragmentation of the nuclear envelope

4. Alignment of the chromatids along the equatorial plate

B: DNA replication occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle and precedes mitosis. Condensation of the chromosomes occurs during the prophase of mitosis. Fragmentation of the nuclear envelope occurs during the prometaphase of mitosis. The chromatids align at the equatorial plate during metaphase and separate into two complete sets of daughter chromosomes during anaphase.

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4. Membrane proteins perform the following functions EXCEPT one. Which one?

1. Form the glycocalyx

2. Act as receptor proteins

3. Form pores to allow the passage of small solutes

4. Behave as enzymes

A: The glycocalyx refers to molecules in the plasma membrane that have a carbohydrate chain attached (prefix “glyco-”).

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5. In a cell cycle, which phase takes the longest time to complete?

1. Anaphase

2. Interphase

3. Prophase

4. Telophase

B: Interphase is the time when the cell is performing its normal function and not dividing.

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6. Cell shape and motility is provided by___

1. Centrosomes

2. Microtubules

3. Golgi apparatus

4. Nucleus

B: Microtubule is a cytoskeletal protein, which maintains the size and shape of the cell. Microtubule may play a role in fine-tuning of locomotion.

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7. In which phase of mitosis would chromosomes line up at the centre of the spindle?

1. Anaphase

2. Interphase

3. Prophase

4. Metaphase

D: Remember the metaphase plate occupies the middle of the cell.

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8. Which one of the following statements best describes DNA?

1. Single-stranded, deoxyribonucleic acid

2. Single-stranded, ribonucleic acid

3. Double-stranded, deoxyribonucleic acid

4. Double-stranded, ribonucleic acid

C: DNA is double-stranded, while the “D” refers to “deoxy-”

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9. The cell junctions allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecule between two cells called___

1. Gap junction

2. Tight junction

3. Focal junction

4. Desmosome

A: The pore diameter in the channel is estimated between 0.8 and 1.4 nm, which permits the passage of ions, sugars, amino acids, and other solutes with molecular weights up to about 1000 Da.

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10. What is the name of the process of division of a somatic cell’s nucleus into two daughter nuclei?

1. Prophase

2. Cytokinesis

3. Mitosis

4. Meiosis

C: Mitosis involves somatic cells. Meiosis refers to the production of the sex cells

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11. Gap junctions are found in____

1. Intestine

2. Brain

3. Kidney

4. Cardiac muscle

D: Gap junctions are present in electrically excitable cells, such as neurons, heart, and_x000d_smooth muscle. Indeed, gap junctions (electrical synapses) were first discovered in myocardium and nerve because of their properties of electrical transmission_x000d_between adjacent cells.

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12. What is the purpose of meiosis? To produce:

1. DNA

2. Somatic cells

3. Diploid cells

4. Haploid cells

D: Meiosis produces sperm or egg so these must have half the complement of chromosomes (be haploid) to allow for the full complement to be present (and not more!) when sperm combines with egg.

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13. Worn-out organelles are transferred to lysosomes by which of the following?

1. Autophagosomes

2. Granular endoplasmic reticulum

3. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum

4. Golgi apparatus

A: Autophagy is a housekeeping process by which obsolete organelles and large protein aggregates are degraded and recycled. Worn-out cell organelles are transferred to lysosomes by double membrane structures called autophagosomes that are formed in the cytosol.

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14. Compared with the intracellular fluid, the extracellular fluid has __________ sodium ion concentration, __________ potassium ion concentration, __________ chloride ion concentration, and __________ phosphate ion concentration.

1. Lower, lower, lower, lower

2. Lower, higher, lower, lower

3. Lower, higher, higher, lower

4. Higher, lower, higher, lower

D: The extracellular fluid has relatively high concentrations of sodium and chloride ions but lower concentrations of potassium and phosphate than the intracellular fluid.

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15. Cell membranes can maintain a difference in electrical charge between the interior of the cell and the extracellular fluid. What is this charge difference called?

1. Excitability

2. The membrane potential

3. The action potential

4. The sodium-potassium pump

B: The inside of a cell is negative, while the exterior side of the membrane is positive. This difference in charge constitutes a difference in electrical potential (or voltage), known as the resting membrane potential. An action potential is generated when the membrane is stimulated and the potential reversed.

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16. Cell membrane integrity is maintained by___

1. Heat stress

2. Na-K-ATPase

3. Ankyrin

4. Spectrin

B: Na-K-ATPase pump regulate the cell volume and membrane integrity.

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17. What results from the events that occur during metaphase of mitosis?

1. The nuclear membranes form around two nuclei.

2. The chromosomes are aligned on a plane in the centre of the cell.

3. The chromosomes become visible and attach to the spindle fibres.

4. The chromatids from each chromosome separate and move to opposite sides of the cell.

B: During metaphase, chromosomes are arranged on a plane (the metaphase plate) in the middle of the cell, attached to microtubules of the spindle

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18. The term “glycocalyx” refers to what?

1. The negatively charged carbohydrate chains that protrude into the cytosol from glycolipids and integral glycoproteins

2. The negatively charged carbohydrate layer on the outer cell surface

3. The layer of anions aligned on the cytosolic surface of the plasma membrane

4. The large glycogen stores found in “fast” muscles

B: The cell “glycocalyx” is the loose negatively charged carbohydrate coat on the outside of the surface of the cell membrane. The membrane carbohydrates usually occur in combination with proteins or lipids in the form of glycoproteins or glycolipids, and the “glyco” portion of these molecules almost invariably protrudes to the outside of the cell.

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19. The term “chromatin” would be used in reference to which of the following?

1. Genetic substance

2. Cellular energy

3. Membrane support

4. Nuclear membrane

A: Chromatin is DNA and the associated proteins so it pertains to genetic material.

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20. Which of the following enables ions such as sodium to cross a plasma membrane?

1. Phospholipid bilayer

2. Peripheral proteins

3. Integral proteins

4. Desmosomes

C: One function of integral protein in the plasma membrane is to form channels to allow for the passage of ions.

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21. Which statement is true for both pinocytosis and phagocytosis?

1. Involves the recruitment of actin filaments

2. Involves the recruitment of actin filaments

3. Endocytotic vesicles fuse with ribosomes that release hydrolases into the vesicles

4. Is only observed in macrophages and neutrophils

A: Both pinocytosis and phagocytosis involve movement of the plasma membrane. Pinocytosis involves invagination of the cell membrane, whereas phago cytosis involves evagination. Both events require the recruitment of actin and other cytoskeleton elements. Phagocytosis is_x000d_not spontaneous and is selective, being triggered by specific receptor-ligand interactions.

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22. What happens during anaphase of mitosis?

1. Spindle fibres pull each chromatid to opposite sides of the cell

2. The sense and nonsense strands “unzip” along their hydrogen bonds.

3. RNA polymerase forms a complementary strand by reading the sense strand.

4. The cell cytoplasm divides into two cells.

A: Separation of the two chromatids of a chromosome occurs at anaphase. Choice D is cytokinesis and begins in late anaphase and continues into telophase

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First Aid

First Aid Quiz

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1. Mr Frimpong is not breathing and has injuries to the face that prevent you from performing mouth-to-mouth. What do you do?

1. Fan the patient and wait for the ambulance

2. Give 15 chest compressions and wait for the ambulance

3. Give chest compression at rate of 100 per minute

4. Try 5 abdominal thrusts and 30 chest compressions

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2. The nurse is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation on an adult patient. When performing chest compressions, the nurse understands that correct hand placement is located over the ______

1. Lower half of the sternum

2. Lower third of the sternum

3. Upper half of the sternum

4. Upper third of the sternum

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3. One of the aims of first aid is to preserve life. This includes____

1. The life of the victim only

2. The life of the first aider only

3. The lives of the victim and first aider only

4. The lives of the victim, bystanders and the first aider

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4. Which of the following is NOT a reason why we put unconscious casualties in the recovery position?

1. If they vomit, it drains out rather than choking them

2. It allows the tongue to fall back

3. It allows the tongue to fall forward

4. It is safe and comfortable position

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5. The following are carried out during the primary survey in emergency assessment EXCEPT?

1. Airway

2. Breathing

3. Exposure

4. Full set of vital signs

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6. The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to determine the level of____

1. blood glucose

2. blood pressure

3. consciousness

4. alertness

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7. What treatment does a victim whose life threating condition is “not breathing” need?

1. 12 to 15 rescue breaths per minute and correct CPR

2. Start CPR immediately

3. The Heimlich maneuver, two rescue breath and CPR

4. You should follow the steps for rescue breathing

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8. CPR cannot prevent possible brain damage unless initiated within _____ minutes of an arrest.

1. 3 minutes

2. 6 minutes

3. 8 minutes

4. 10 minutes

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9. During CPR, chest compressions are carried out at a rate of at least___

1. 100 compressions/hour

2. 100 compressions/minute

3. 30 compressions/30 seconds

4. 30 compressions/minute

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10. A victim of a car accident has just vomited and now appears to be coughing up blood. He is breathing very quickly and his pulse is weak and fast. What is most likely wrong? He___

1. has internal bleeding.

2. is having a diabetic emergency

3. is having a heart attack.

4. is having a seizure.

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11. Which assessment scale is used as a tool to check a patient’s level of consciousness?

1. AVPB

2. AVPU

3. GMC

4. GSC

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12. You are first on scene and the victim is unresponsive, pulseless and has vomited. You do not feel comfortable performing mouth-to-mouth ventilation. What is best the approach?

1. Compression only CPR

2. Do not initiate resuscitation

3. Wait for the ambulance to arrive

4. Wipe off the face or cover with shirt

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13. The one-hand technique of CPR is used for___

1. Infants

2. Adults

3. Children under 8 years old

4. Casualties with chest injury

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14. To perform this technique, the unconscious victim’s forehead is pushed while pulling up on the bony part of the jaw with two or three fingers of your other hand to lift the chin. This technique is known as____

1. Forehead tilt

2. Head lift

3. Head tilt/chin lift

4. Jaw lift

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15. When a nurse is performing a primary survey in the emergency department, what is being assessed?

1. The acuity of the patient’s condition to determine priority of care

2. The status of airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure/environmental control

3. Whether the patient is responsive enough to provide needed information

4. Whether the personnel of the emergency department are adequate to treat the patient

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16. The two-hands technique of CPR is used for___

1. Infants

2. Adults

3. Children under 8 years old

4. Casualties with chest injury

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17. Which is the correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breath (s) for use in an adult casualty?

1. 15 compressions 2 rescue breaths

2. 2 compressions 30 rescue breaths

3. 30 compressions 2 rescue breaths

4. 5 compressions 1 rescue breath

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18. The two-fingers technique of CPR is used for___

1. Infants

2. Adults

3. Children under 8 years old

4. Casualties with chest injury

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19. An unconscious casualty is lying on his back and has broken leg. What position is best for the casualty?

1. Leave them as they are

2. Lying down with the legs raised

3. Recovery position

4. Sitting up position

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20. The intervention that can best establish whether a client is unconscious is by observing the client’s response to_______

1. Light in the eyes

2. Opening the airway

3. Pinch of the earlobe

4. Verbal stimuli

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21. When performing CPR on an infant, how deep should the chest compressions be?

1. 1½ inches.

2. 2 inches

3. 2½ inches

4. 3 inches

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22. What nursing intervention is done during the “E” step of the primary survey?

1. Assess mental status and capillary refill for signs of shock.

2. Elicit history and head-to-toe assessment.

3. Obtain full set of vital signs.

4. Remove the patient’s clothing and assess.

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