Fluid, Electrolytes and Acid-Base Imbalances Quizzes

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Maternal physiology

Maternal physiology

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1. Related to calcium metabolism, which of the following occurs during pregnancy?

1. Serum magnesium levels increase.

2. Total serum calcium levels decline.

3. The fetal skeleton accrues 70 g of calcium by term.

4. Maximums of 500 mEq of sodium and 200 mEq of potassium are retained.

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2. Regarding the pituitary gland during pregnancy, which of the following is true?

1. Growth of microadenomas is likely.

2. Serum prolactin levels remain unchanged throughout pregnancy.

3. It enlarges due to estrogen-stimulated hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the lactotrophs.

4. A and C

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3. As illustrated by this graphic, which of the following occurs during pregnancy?

1. The hematocrit increases.

2. Total blood volume increases 40% by term.

3. Red cell volume does not increase until 20 weeks.

4. The hematocrit increases due to an increased red cell volume relative to plasma volume.

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4. Which of the following are true regarding infused angiotensin II and its vascular effects during pregnancy?

1. Hypertensive patients become and then remain refractory.

2. The vascular response is believed to be progesterone related.

3. Normotensive nulliparas near term are responsive to the effects of angiotensin II.

4. Increased vessel refractoriness to angiotensin II results primarily from altered renin-angiotensin secretion.

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5. Regarding Braxton Hicks contractions, which of the following is true?

1. Their intensity varies between 20 and 40 mm Hg.

2. They occur early in pregnancy and may be palpated in the second trimester.

3. Late in pregnancy, these contractions become more regular and may cause discomfort.

4. B and C

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6. This graphic suggests which of the following?

1. Serum iron is decreased in the first trimester.

2. Serum ferritin is increased in the second trimester.

3. Serum ferritin is increased by the end of pregnancy.

4. Serum transferrin is increased by the end of pregnancy.

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7. Average blood loss for a vaginal delivery is which the following?

1. 500 mL

2. 1000 mL

3. Half of that lost during cesarean delivery of twins

4. A and C

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8. Regarding aldosterone during pregnancy, which of the following is true?

1. It is the principal mineralocorticoid.

2. Secretion is decreased by sodium restriction.

3. Increased aldosterone levels protect against the antinatriuretic effect of progesterone and atrial natriuretic peptide.

4. A and B

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9. Concerning acid-base equilibrium during pregnancy, which of the following statement is true?

1. Plasma bicarbonate concentration decreases from 26 to approximately 22 mmol/L.

2. The maternal oxygen-disassociation curve is shifted to the right.

3. Physiological dyspnea results from slightly decreased tidal volume that lowers CO2 levels.

4. Estrogen acts centrally, where it lowers the threshold and increases the sensitivity of the chemoreflex response to CO2.

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10. Regarding the central nervous system during pregnancy, which of the following is true?

1. Memory decline is typically limited to the third trimester.

2. Pregnancy significantly alters cerebrovascular autoregulation.

3. Attention and memory are typically decreased in women receiving magnesium sulfate

4. Mean blood flow in the middle cerebral artery (MCA) and posterior cerebral artery (PCA) increases in the third trimester.

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11. Regarding the gastrointestinal tract during pregnancy, which of the following is true?

1. Gastric emptying time is shortened during labor.

2. Gastric emptying time is lengthened in each trimester.

3. Pyrosis is caused by reflux of acidic secretions into the lower esophagus.

4. Epulis gravidarum is a highly vascular swelling that may affect any mucosal membrane.

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12. Uterine blood flow near term most closely approximates which of the following?

1. 150 mL/min

2. 350 mL/min

3. 550 mL/min

4. 850 mL/min

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13. Regarding the thyroid gland during pregnancy, which of the following is true?

1. It undergoes enlargement through hypertrophy.

2. Total T4 concentration increases during pregnancy.

3. Free T4 concentration increases its mean value by term.

4. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which mimics thyroid-stimulating hormone, has declining levels beginning at approximately 20 weeks.

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14. During pregnancy, the venous pressure does which of the following?

1. Decreases when the woman is lying in the lateral position

2. Declines from 24 mm Hg to 8 mm Hg at term in the lower extremities

3. Is responsible for dependent edema in the lower extremities

4. A and C

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15. The total increase in protein during pregnancy approximates which of following?

1. 500 g

2. 1000 g

3. 500 g for contractile protein in the uterus

4. B and C

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16. Regarding iodine during pregnancy, which of the following is true?

1. Maternal requirements remain the same during normal pregnancy.

2. Fetal neurodevelopment is dependent on adequate thyroid hormone exposure.

3. Iodine deficiency is the most preventable cause of fetal neurological deficiency.

4. In women with low or marginal intake, deficiency may manifest as decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels.

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17. Regarding the coagulation system in pregnancy, which of the following statements is true?

1. Mean platelet count is 250,000/µL.

2. Fibrinolytic activity is usually reduced.

3. Fibrinogen levels are increased to a median of 250 mg/dL.

4. Decrease in platelet concentration are solely due to hemodilution.

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Management of patients with HIV infection and AIDS

Management of patients with HIV infection and AIDS Quiz

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1. A patient is an IV drug user who regularly shares needles and syringes with friends. What information does the nurse provide to decrease the patient’s risk of HIV through shared needles and syringes after each use?

1. Fill and flush the syringe with clear water, then fill the syringe with bleach, shake approximately 30-60 seconds, and rinse with clear water.

2. Fill and flush the syringe with water, then fill the syringe with soap and hot water, shake 2 minutes, and rinse with cold water.

3. Rinse needles after each use with a bleach and water solution, then allow to air dry.

4. Rinse needles after each use with rubbing alcohol and water solution, then rinse with water.Rinse needles after each use with rubbing alcohol and water solution, then rinse with water.

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2. A diagnosis of “wasting syndrome” can be initially made when involuntary weight loss exceeds what percentage of baseline body weight?

1. 10%

2. 15%

3. 20%

4. 25%

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3. The minimum number of daily calories recommended for a 70-kg individual with AIDS-related “wasting syndrome” is___

1. 1,500 calories

2. 2,000 calories

3. 2,800 calories

4. 4,000 calories

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4. A nurse knows that all of the following antiretroviral agents can be taken without regard to food intake except for___

1. Hivid

2. Epivir

3. Sustiva

4. Videx

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5. The most common infection in persons with AIDS (80% occurrence) is___

1. Cytomegalovirus

2. Legionnaire’s disease

3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

4. Pneumocystis pneumonia

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6. Up to 85% of individuals infected with HIV will develop symptoms of AIDS within how many years after infection?

1. 3 to 5 years

2. 6 to 7 years

3. 8 to 10 years

4. 12 to 15 years

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7. The health care provider prescribed an integrase inhibitor drug for the patient with HIV. The patient asks the nurse how this drug works. What is the nurse’s best response?

1. “It reduces how well HIV genetic material can be converted into human genetic material.”

2. “It reinforces the immune system’s ability to fight off an HIV infection.”

3. “It prevents viral deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) from integrating into the host’s (your) DNA."

4. “It will prevent your HIV infection from progressing to AIDS.”

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8. What is the most important means of preventing HIV spread or transmission?

1. Engineering

2. Education

3. Isolation

4. Counseling

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9. The following opportunistic infections can be observed in AIDS EXCEPT?

1. Toxoplasmosis

2. Gastroenteritis

3. Tuberculosis

4. Cytomegalovirus

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10. The most debilitating gastrointestinal condition found in up to 90% of all AIDS patients is___

1. anorexia

2. chronic diarrhea

3. nausea

4. vomiting

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11. The most common malignancy seen with HIV infection is___

1. carcinoma of the skin

2. Kaposi’s sarcoma

3. pancreatic cancer

4. stomach cancer

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12. You are orienting a new graduate RN to the medical unit. Which point would you be sure to include when teaching this nurse to prevent HIV transmission from patients?

1. Wear gloves when in contact with patients’ mucous membranes or nonintact skin.Wear gloves when in contact with patients’ mucous membranes or nonintact skin.

2. Be sure to wear protective gear when providing any care to HIV-positive patients

3. Always wear a mask when entering an HIV-positive patient’s room.

4. Use postexposure prophylaxis (PEP), whether the patient is HIV-positive or not.

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13. A nurse would know that all of the following conditions are classified as HIV category B except for___

1. candidiasis

2. herpes zoster

3. Kaposi’s sarcoma

4. listeriosis

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14. The HIV-positive patient tells the nurse that his HIV-negative partner will be using the preexposure drug emtricitabine (Truvada)._x000D_Which statement indicates to the nurse the need for additional teaching about this drug?

1. “My partner will need to be tested for HIV every 3 months."

2. “This drug will decrease the chances of my partner becoming HIV positive.”

3. “Once we start using Truvada I will no longer need to use a condom.”

4. “My partner will need to be monitored for any side effects of this drug.”

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15. After infection with HIV, the immune system responds by making antibodies against the virus, usually within how many weeks after infection?

1. 1 to 2 weeks

2. 3 to 6 week

3. 3 to 12 weeks

4. 6 to 18 weeks

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16. Which is the most common route for health care providers to contract the HIV virus? Exposure to HIV-positive___

1. blood

2. body fluids

3. mucous membranes

4. needlesticks.

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17. An example of an antiretroviral agent, classified as a fusion inhibitor, that must be injected subcutaneously twice a day is___

1. Agenerase

2. Combivir

3. Fuzeon (T20)

4. Retrovir

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18. Highly activated antiretroviral therapy (HAART) causes what effect?

1. Reversal of a patient’s antibody status

2. Decrease of the viral load

3. Increase of the viral load

4. More detectable HIV

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19. One of the most frequent systemic side effects of anti-HIV drugs is___

1. osteoporosis

2. hyperglycemia

3. lipodystrophy syndrome

4. pancreatitis

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20. Which statement regarding HIV/AIDS among older adults are true?

1. The risk for HIV infection after exposure is minimal for older adults.

2. Older men are more susceptible to HIV infection than are older women.

3. It is not necessary to assess an older adult for a history of drug abuse.

4. Older adults who participate in high-risk behaviors are susceptible to HIV infection.

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