Urinary System Disorders Quizzes

1 votes, 0 avg

Adult Nurse - RNA

Adult Nurse-RNA Quiz

1 / 7

1. Which of the following agencies set the standards of education, training and conduct and performance for nurses and midwives in the UK?

1. NMC

2. DH

3. CQC

4. RCN

2 / 7

2. What is the role of the NMC?

1. To represent or campaign on behalf of nurses and midwifes

2. To regulate hospital or other healthcare settings in the UK

3. To regulate health care assistance

4. To regulate nurses and midwives in the UK to protect the public

3 / 7

3. What is meant by code of ethics?

1. Legal activities of a registered nurse who work in the UK

2. Legislative body to control nurses

4 / 7

4. The Code contains the professional standards that registered nurses and midwives must uphold. UK nurses and midwives must act in line with the Code, whether they are providing direct care to individuals, groups or communities or bringing their professional knowledge to bear on nursing and midwifery practice in other roles; such as leadership, education or research. What 4 Key areas does the code cover?

1. Prioritise people, practise effectively, preserve safety, promote professionalism and trust

2. Prioritise people, practise safely, preserve dignity, promote professionalism and trust

3. Prioritise care, practise effectively, preserve security, promote professionalism and trust

4. Prioritise care, practise safely, preserve security, promote kindness and trust

5 / 7

5. All are purposes of NMC except?

1. NMC’s role is to regulate nurses and midwives in England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.

2. It sets standards of education, training, conduct and performance so that nurses and midwives can deliver high quality healthcare throughout their careers.

3. It makes sure that nurses and midwives keep their skills and knowledge up to date and uphold its professional standards.

4. It is responsible for regulating hospitals or other healthcare settings.

6 / 7

6. The UK regulator for nursing & midwifery professions within the UK with a started aim to protect the health & well-being of the public is?

1. GMC

2. NMC

3. BMC

4. WHC

7 / 7

7. What is the purpose of The NMC Code?

1. It outlines specific tasks or clinical procedures

2. It ascertains in detail a nurse's or midwife's clinical expertise

3. It is a tool for educating prospective nurses and midwives

Enter email address to receive exam results with explanations. This is the sole reason for taking your email address, and it is not mandatory to provide it.

Your score is

The average score is 0%

Facebook Twitter

0 votes, 0 avg

127

Skeletal System

Skeletal System Quiz

1 / 37

1. Which of the following is NOT a “long” bone?

1. The humerus

2. The tibia

3. A carpal

4. A metacarpal

C: A “long bone” has a length that is significantly longer than its width. A carpal (a bone of the wrist) is a short bone.

2 / 37

2. Which one of the following lists contains only bones in the appendicular skeleton?

1. Patella, ethmoid, femur, coccyx, tibia

2. Clavicle, fibula, metatarsal, phalange, radius

3. Humerus, scapula, occipital, metacarpal, sternum

4. Ulna, radius, phalange, mandible, coxal

B: The coccyx, occipital, sternum and mandible are parts of the axial skeleton.

3 / 37

3. What is contained within the medullary canal of a long bone?

1. Trabeculae

2. Lamellae

3. Marrow

4. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts

C: Red (and/or yellow) marrow fills the medullary canal (or cavity).

4 / 37

4. What is the name given to the central tunnel of an osteon that contains blood vessels?

1. Canaliculus

2. Endosteum

3. Haversian canal

4. Medullary canal

C: Also known as the central canal. The medullary canal is a macroscopic structure within the diaphysis (shaft) of a long bone.

5 / 37

5. How do synovial joints differ from the other types of bone articulation?

1. They have a joint cavity

2. The bones are joined by fibrous tissue.

3. The articulating bones are joined by cartilage.

4. The articulating bone surfaces are covered by tendons.

A: And the cavity is filled with synovial fluid.

6 / 37

6. One of the functions of bones is to make red blood cells. What is this process known as?

1. Haemolysis

2. Haemopoiesis

3. Haematuria

4. Haemostasis

B: Haemopoiesis (or haematopoiesis) refers to making all of cellular components of blood. The other (wrong) choices are, respectively, the rupturing (lysis) of RBC, blood in the urine and the process by which the body causes bleeding to stop.

7 / 37

7. Where is the epiphyseal plate of a long bone located?

1. In the diaphysis

2. Between the diaphysis and the epiphysis

3. In the epiphysis

4. In the medullary canal

B: The “plate” is the hyaline cartilage between the shaft (diaphysis) and end (epiphysis) of a long bone in children and adolescents. In adults it is replaced by an ossified “epiphyseal line”.

8 / 37

8. To which bones does the word phalanges apply?

1. Fingers and toes

2. Wrist and ankle

3. Ankle and foot

4. Fingers and hand

A: Choice B refers to carpals and tarsals. Choices C and D include metacarpals and metatarsals.

9 / 37

9. Articulating bones are joined by___

1. Aponeuroses

2. Tendons

3. Fasciculi

4. Ligaments

D: Ligaments join bone to bone. Tendons (and aponeuroses) join muscle to bone.

10 / 37

10. In which structure are osteoclasts and osteoblasts found?

1. In the periosteum

2. In the Haversian canals

3. In the lacunae of osteons

4. In the trabeculae of osteons

A: The membrane around bones houses the bone-forming cells (osteoblasts) and the bone resorbing cells (osteoclasts).

11 / 37

11. Which term below refers to a depression in a bone?

1. Tuberosity

2. Fossa

3. Tubercle

4. Condyle

B: Fossa is a depression reminiscent of a (small) dinner table plate. A tuberosity is a roughening on a bone surface. The other two choices are projections above a bone surface.

12 / 37

12. Which one of the following best describes a synovial joint?

1. Synarthrosis

2. Immovable joint

3. Slightly moveable joint

4. Freely moveable joint

D: Synovial fluid is the lubricant that allows friction-free joint movement. A synarthrosis is an immovable joint

13 / 37

13. In which one of the following structures do osteocytes reside?

1. Haversian canals

2. Lacunae

3. Trabeculae

4. Endosteum

B: Lacuna refers to a hole, pit, “lake” or cavity within a bone.

14 / 37

14. In which of the following bone structures do osteocytes live?

1. Osteons

2. Canaliculi

3. Lacunae

4. Lamellae

C: Lacunae are the spaces within the lamellae of an osteon which enclose a bone cell (osteocyte). These cells extend their processes into the canaliculi.

15 / 37

15. Which one of the following is a bone that is embedded within a tendon?

1. Sphenoid

2. Hyoid

3. Ethmoid

4. Sesamoid

D: Sesamoid refers to like a sesame seed. Many are normal parts of anatomy that ossify within tendons (patella, fabella, hallux sesamoid).

16 / 37

16. The axial skeleton groups together which sets of bones?

1. The arms and hands, the legs and feet, shoulder girdle and pelvic girdle

2. The head, shoulder girdle, arms and hands

3. The thoracic cage, vertebral column, shoulder girdle, the pelvic girdle, the skull and facial bones

4. Bones of the skull and face, thoracic cage and vertebral column

D: Choice A describes the appendicular skeleton. Choices A and D are complementary.

17 / 37

17. Which of the following bone markings is NOT a projection for muscle attachment?

1. Fossa

2. Tuberosity

3. Tubercle

4. Trochanter

A: A fossa is a depression into which fits a projecting part of another bone when the two bones form a joint.

18 / 37

18. Which of the following bone markings forms part of an articulation?

1. The deltoid tuberosity of the humerus

2. The lateral condyle of the femur

3. The greater trochanter of the femur

4. The greater tubercle of the humerus

B: The lateral condyle of the femur articulates with the lateral facet of the superior articular surface of the tibia, in the knee joint.

19 / 37

19. Which of the following comprise seven bones?

1. Cervical vertebrae

2. Carpals

3. Cranial bones

4. Lumbar vertebrae

A: C1 to C7. There are eight carpals in each wrist. There are eight cranial bones. There are five lumbar vertebrae.

20 / 37

20. Which list contains the bones of the pelvic and pectoral girdles?

1. Coxal, scapulae, manubrium, ilium

2. Clavicles, cervical, coccyx, innominate

3. Clavicles, scapulae, coxal

4. Clavicles, scapulae, sacrum, coxal

C: The manubrium, coccyx and sacrum are within the axial skeleton.

21 / 37

21. The appendicular skeleton groups together which sets of bones?

1. The arms and hands, the legs and feet, shoulder girdle and pelvic girdle

2. The head, shoulder girdle, arms and hands

3. The thoracic cage, vertebral column, shoulder girdle, the pelvic girdle, the skull and facial bones

4. Bones of the skull and face, thoracic cage and vertebral column

A: The appendages (arms and legs) and the girdles form the appendicular skeleton

22 / 37

22. What does “articulation” refer to?

1. The joining of a ligament to a bone

2. The contact made between a tendon and a bone

3. The contact between two bones

4. The connection between a muscle and a bone

C: Articulation means joint between bones.

23 / 37

23. What are the bones of the fingers known as?

1. Short bones

2. Metacarpals

3. Carpals

4. Phalanges

D: Phalanges (singular phalanx) are the bones of the fingers or toes. Metacarpals are the bones of the hand.

24 / 37

24. On which bone is the greater trochanter found?

1. Pelvic

2. Femur

3. Radius

4. Humerus

B: Only the femur has a structure named “trochanter”.

25 / 37

25. What is a “trochanter”?

1. Part of a femur

2. A feature of the pelvis

3. A projection that forms part of an articulation

4. A groove in which lies a tendon

A: the “greater” trochanter is a bone marking (a bump) that lies on the lateral surface of the proximal femur, while the “lesser” trochanter lies on the medial surface of the proximal femur.

26 / 37

26. Synovial joints have all of the following features EXCEPT?

1. Are surrounded by an articular capsule

2. Have synovial fluid filling the space between articulating bones

3. Have synovial membrane covering the articulating bone surfaces

4. Are supported by reinforcing ligaments

C: Articulating bone surfaces are covered by hyaline cartilage. Synovial membranes cover all other internal joint surfaces.

27 / 37

27. The appendicular skeleton includes all of the following EXCEPT?

1. The pectoral girdle

2. The thoracic cage

3. The phalanges

4. The lower limbs

B: The thoracic cage (the ribs) is part of the axial skeleton.

28 / 37

28. What body part is able to perform pronation and supination?

1. The forearm

2. The foot

3. The thigh

4. The wrist

A: It is the radius and ulna bones whose movement relative to each other produce pronation and supination.

29 / 37

29. Which of the following is an example of a synovial joint?

1. Tibia and fibula

2. Sternum and rib number 1

3. Thoracic vertebrae 4 and 5

4. Proximal ends of the radius and ulna

D: The radius and ulna are freely moving at the elbow joint.

30 / 37

30. Carpals refers to____

1. The points of attachment of ribs to vertebrae

2. Bones of the wrist

3. Bones that are embedded within a tendon

4. The thumbs

B: Wrist bones are carpals; hand bones are metacarpals (ankle bones are tarsals)

31 / 37

31. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

1. Haemopoiesis

2. Haemostasis

3. Peristalsis

4. Glycogenolysis

A: New blood cells are made in the bone marrow (haemopoiesis). Haemostasis refers to stopping bleeding.

32 / 37

32. Which of the following is NOT a depression or cavity on a bone?

1. Tuberosity

2. Facet

3. Meatus

4. Sinus

A: A tuberosity is a rough area on the surface of a bone to which a muscle’s tendon attaches.

33 / 37

33. The manubrium and the xiphoid process are located on which part of the skeleton?

1. The lower jaw

2. The sternum

3. The pelvis

4. The hand

B: The manubrium and xiphoid process (and the body) are all parts of the sternum

34 / 37

34. Which bone of the head has a synovial joint?

1. The sphenoid

2. The maxilla

3. The mandible

4. The hyoid

C: The ramus of the mandible (the only movable bone of the skull) articulates with the temporal bone at the mandibular fossa. The joint (temporomandibular join) is freely moveable, allowing us to chew and speak.

35 / 37

35. Which of the following describes the movements known as pronation and supination?

1. The flexing of the arm with respect to the forearm around the elbow.

2. The swivelling of the foot to the medial and lateral directions.

3. The twisting of the wrist while the elbow is held motionless.

4. The rotation at the shoulder that causes the arm to describe a cone shape.

C: Pronation occurs when the radius is moved from a position parallel to the ulna to one where it crosses over the ulna, and supination is the return motion (may be thought of as the action we perform when turning off a wall-mounted tap).

36 / 37

36. Which bone is most superior?

1. Manubrium

2. Occipital bone

3. Cervical vertebra #3

4. Patella

B: The occipital bone forms the base of the skull and so is above (superior) to all the others when the body is in the anatomical position.

37 / 37

37. Where are blood vessels in compact bone found?

1. In the canaliculi

2. In the periosteum

3. In the lacunae

4. In the central canal

D: The central canal (or Haversian canal) of an osteon houses blood vessels.

Enter email address to receive exam results with explanations. This is the sole reason for taking your email address, and it is not mandatory to provide it.

Your score is

The average score is 60%

Facebook Twitter

Urinary System Disorders Quizzes

Leave a Reply Cancel reply

About Us

Sections

Quick Links

Recent post

Cell Injury Quizzes

INTRODUCTION TO PATHOLOGY QUIZ

Did you know:

get notified about new updates