Musculoskeletal System Quizzes

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Urinary System

Urinary System Quiz

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1. How does the juxtaglomerular apparatus respond when systemic blood pressure is too high?

1. The juxtaglomerular cells send a message to the afferent arteriole to dilate.

2. The macula densa sends a message to the efferent arteriole to constrict.

3. The macula densa sends a message to the afferent arteriole to constrict.

4. The granular cells release renin which causes systemic arterioles to constrict.

C: Constricting the afferent arteriole will decrease the volume of blood entering the glomerulus and hence the blood pressure in it. All other choices will result in an increase in pressure within the glomerulus.

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2. The normal quantity of water ingested and excreted in the urine is approximately___

1. 0.5 L/day

2. 1.5 L/day

3. 2.5 L/day

4. 4.0 L/day

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3. Which part of the nephron is impermeable to water?

1. Proximal convoluted tubule

2. Distal convoluted tubule in the presence of ADH

3. Ascending limb of the loop of Henle

4. Descending limb of the loop of Henle

C: The ascending limb. Hence, volume of filtrate does not change as it passes through the ascending limb.

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4. Where are all of the glomeruli of the kidney located?

1. Medulla

2. Columns

3. Pyramids

4. Cortex

D: The tubules and collecting ducts extend into the medulla, but all glomeruli are in the cortex.

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5. A 22-year-old woman runs a 10-kilometer race on a hot day and becomes dehydrated. Assuming that her ADH levels are very high and that her kidneys are functioning normally, in which part of the renal tubule is the most water reabsorbed?

1. Proximal tubule

2. Loop of Henle

3. Distal tubule

4. Cortical collecting tubule

A: In normally functioning kidneys, approximately two thirds of the water filtered by the glomerular capillaries is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. Although dehydration increases ADH levels and water reabsorption by the distal tubules, collecting tubules, and collecting ducts, and this action contributes importantly to decreased water excretion in dehydration, the total amount of water that remains in these tubular segments is small compared with the amount of water in the proximal tubules.

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6. An abnormal constituent of urine is___

1. Creatinine

2. Glucose

3. Potassium

4. Urea

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7. The normal amount of sodium ingested and excreted in the urine is approximately___

1. 2 to 3 g/day

2. 4 to 5 g/day

3. 6 to 8 g/day

4. 9 to 10 g/day

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8. How are cortical nephrons different from juxtamedullary nephrons?

1. Cortical nephrons lie almost entirely outside the renal medulla

2. Cortical nephrons have associated vasa recta

3. Cortical nephrons have a longer tubule

4. There are fewer cortical nephrons

A: Cortical nephrons are situated almost entirely within the cortex, while the far less numerous juxtamedullary nephrons have their glomeruli adjacent to the medulla and extend their loop of Henle into the medulla.

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9. Which part of the renal tubule is impermeable to water?

1. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle

2. The collecting duct

3. The proximal convoluted tubule

4. The thin portion of the loop of Henle

A: Water does not pass through the ascending limb. However, solutes (Na+ and Cl-) do pass through.

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10. How does the composition of the filtrate change as it travels through the loop of Henle?

1. In the ascending limb, the volume decreases, and in the descending limb, the concentration increases.

2. In the descending limb, the volume decreases, and in the ascending limb, the concentration decreases.

3. In the descending limb, the volume decreases, and in the ascending limb, the concentration increases.

4. In the ascending limb, the volume decreases, and in the descending limb, the concentration decreases.

B: The descending limb is permeable to water so water flows out of the tubule decreasing filtrate volume. The ascending limb is impermeable to water, so its volume does not change, however, sodium, potassium and chloride ions are reabsorbed which decreases the concentration of the filtrate.

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11. In the glomerulus, what is the method by which solutes are transferred from the blood to the Bowman’s capsule?

1. Diffusion

2. Active transport

3. Secretion

4. Filtration

D: Filtration due to the pressure difference between the capillary blood and fluid in the Bowman’s capsule.

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12. The glomeruli are located in the______ of the kidney.

1. Cortex

2. Medulla

3. Minor calyces

4. Major calyces

A: Only the cortex contains glomeruli.

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13. What is the kidney tubule’s response to a rise in blood pH?

1. Bicarbonate ions are created from carbonic acid and absorbed into the blood.

2. Hydronium ions are secreted into the filtrate, where they are buffered by bicarbonate ions in the filtrate.

3. Bicarbonate ions are secreted into the filtrate, while hydronium ions are absorbed from the filtrate into the blood.

4. Hydrogen ions are secreted into the filtrate, while bicarbonate ions are absorbed from the filtrate into the blood.

C: A rise in blood pH means it is getting more alkaline. That means there is too much bicarbonate in the blood. To counter this, some bicarbonate ions are secreted into the filtrate, while some hydrogen ions are absorbed from the filtrate into the tubule cells to decrease the pH.

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14. Increased blood osmolality will result in?

1. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stimulation

2. An increase in urine volume

3. Diuresis

4. Less reabsorption of water

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15. Which of the following would likely lead to hyponatremia?

1. Excessive ADH secretion

2. Restriction of fluid intake

3. Excess aldosterone secretion

4. Administration of 2 liters of 3% NaCl solution

A: Excessive secretion of ADH increases water reabsorption by the renal collecting tubules, which reduces extracellular fluid sodium concentration (hyponatremia). Restriction of fluid intake, excessive aldosterone secretion, or administration of hypertonic 3% NaCl solution would all cause increased plasma sodium concentration (hypernatremia), whereas administration of 0.9% NaCl (an isotonic solution) would cause no major changes in plasma osmolarity.

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16. Which substance is actively reabsorbed from the filtrate in the kidney tubule?

1. Na+

2. HCO3

3. Cl-

4. H2O

A: All other substances are passively reabsorbed.

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17. What structure does the blood from the afferent arteriole enter?

1. The peritubular capillaries

2. The vasa recta

3. The glomerulus

4. Bowman’s capsule

C: Afferent (incoming) arteriole enters the glomerulus; the efferent arteriole leaves the glomerulus.

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18. What molecule catalyses the formation of angiotensin I?

1. Carbonic anhydrase

2. Calcitriol

3. Erythropoietin

4. Renin

D: Renin is an enzyme that catalyses the reaction that forms angiotensin I from angiotensinogen.

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19. An adrenal tumor that causes excess aldosterone secretion would tend to _____ plasma K+ concentration, _____ plasma pH, _____ renin secretion, and _____ blood pressure.

1. Decrease, decrease, decrease, decrease

2. Decrease, increase, decrease, increase

3. Decrease, decrease, decrease, increase

4. Decrease, increase, increase, increase

B: Excess aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion by the principal cells of the collecting tubules, causing sodium retention, increased blood pressure, and decreased renin secretion while increasing excretion of potassium and tending to decrease plasma potassium concentration._x000D__x000D_Excess aldosterone also causes a shift of potassium from the extracellular fluid into the cells, further reducing plasma potassium concentration. Aldosterone excess also stimulates hydrogen ion secretion and bicarbonate reabsorption by the intercalated cells and tends to increase plasma pH (alkalosis). Therefore the classic manifestations of excess aldosterone secretion are hypokalemia, hypertension, alkalosis, and low renin levels.

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20. Juvenile (type 1) diabetes mellitus is often diagnosed because of polyuria (high urine flow) and polydipsia (frequent drinking) that occur because of which of the following?

1. Increased delivery of glucose to the collecting duct interferes with the action of antidiuretic hormone

2. Increased glomerular filtration of glucose increases Na+ reabsorption via the sodium-glucose co-transporter

3. When the filtered load of glucose exceeds the renal threshold, a rising glucose concentration in the proximal tubule decreases the osmotic driving force for water reabsorption

4. High plasma glucose concentration decreases thirst

C: High urine flow occurs in type 1 diabetes because the filtered load of glucose exceeds the renal threshold, resulting in an increase in glucose concentration in the tubule, which decreases the osmotic driving force for water reabsorption. Increased urine flow reduces extracellular fluid volume and stimulates the release of ADH.

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21. Four sections of the vasculature of the kidney tubule are listed below. Which one lists them in the correct order of blood flow from left to right?

1. efferent arteriole, glomerulus, afferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries.

2. afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries.

3. peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole.

4. glomerulus, afferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, efferent venule.

B: The afferent arteriole carries blood into the glomerulus so must be first. The efferent arteriole carries blood away from the glomerulus. The peritubular capillaries then arise.

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22. What is the name for the entry point to the kidney for nerves, blood vessels, ureters and lymphatics?

1. Hilum

2. Minor calyx

3. Major calyx

4. Pelvis

B: Hilum is the name of the point of attachment between an organ and its supply services.

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23. Which material is secreted into the filtrate in the kidney tubule?

1. H2O

2. Urea

3. Na+

4. Albumin

B: Urea (a waste product) is lipid soluble, so it can passively move out of the filtrate into the tubule cells. It is secreted back into the filtrate to effect its excretion.

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24. What is the body’s response to a rise in blood plasma osmotic pressure?

1. The anterior pituitary releases ADH which makes the renal tubule permeable to water.

2. The posterior pituitary releases ADH which makes the renal tubule permeable to water.

3. The juxtaglomerular apparatus releases renin which promotes diuresis

4. The glomerular filtration rate increases, so more urine is produced.

B: ADH, from the posterior pituitary, would allow more water to be reclaimed from the filtrate so that plasma osmotic pressure does not increase further._x000D__x000D_The anterior pituitary gland does not release ADH._x000D__x000D_Renin and its effects do not promote diuresis.

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25. Which statement about kidney anatomy is correct?

1. The cortex is superficial to the medulla and contains all of the glomeruli.

2. The cortex is deep to the medulla and contains the collecting tubules.

3. The pyramids are in the cortex and contain the collecting tubules.

4. The pyramids are in the medulla and contain all of the glomeruli.

A: The cortex is superficial to the medulla. All glomeruli are in the cortex. The medulla has the collecting ducts.

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26. Solutes move from the blood in the glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule due to which of the following influences?

1. Osmotic pressure difference

2. Diffusion down the concentration gradient

3. By active transport

4. Hydrostatic pressure difference

D: The efferent (outgoing) arteriole has a smaller diameter than the afferent arteriole; hence, the glomerulus is a high-pressure area. This aids the movement of dissolved substances through the filtration membrane.

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27. Which change would you expect to find in a dehydrated person deprived of water for 24 hours?

1. Decreased plasma renin activity

2. Decreased plasma antidiuretic hormone concentration

3. Increased plasma atrial natriuretic peptide concentration

4. Increased water permeability of the collecting duct

D: Dehydration due to water deprivation decreases extracellular fluid volume, which in turn increases renin secretion and decreases plasma atrial natriuretic peptide. Dehydration also increases the plasma sodium concentration, which stimulates the secretion of ADH. The increased ADH increases water permeability in the collecting ducts. The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is relatively impermeable to water, and this low permeability is not altered by water deprivation or increased levels of ADH.

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28. What is the name of the tube that connects the bladder to the kidney?

1. renal tubule

2. ureter

3. urethra

4. collecting duct

B: Not to be confused with the urethra through which urine exits the body.

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29. Which of the following is NOT produced by the kidneys?

1. Aldosterone

2. Renin

3. Erythropoietin

4. Calcitriol

A: Aldosterone is produced in the adrenal cortex (not the kidneys). The kidneys, along with the skin and liver contribute to producing calcitriol.

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Respiratory System

Respiratory System Quiz

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1. The abbreviation IRDS stands for___

1. A. Infant respiratory disease syndrome

2. B. Infant respiratory distress syndrome

3. C. Intermittent respiratory disease syndrome

4. D. Intermittent respiratory distress state

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1. The bluish cast that results from inadequate oxygenation of the skin and mucosa is called?

1. Albinism

2. Cyanosis

3. Melanosis

4. Xanthosis

A. Albinism also known as achromasia is an inherited disorder that presents with little or no melanin production, which results in either little or no color to skin, eyes or hair._x000D__x000D_B. Cyanosis is bluish discoloration of the skin_x000D__x000D_C. Melanosis is a condition of excessive production of melanin in the skin or other tissue._x000D__x000D_D. Xanthosis is a yellowish discolouration of degenerating tissues, especially seen in malignant neoplasms.

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3. Choose the initial part of the respiratory tract that is not considered part of the gas-exchange airways

1. A. Alveolar duct

2. B. Alveolar sacs

3. C. Bronchioles

4. D. Respiratory bronchioles

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4. The serous membrane covering the surface of the lungs is called the____

1. Mediastinum

2. Parietal pleura

3. Pleurisy

4. Visceral pleura

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25. Which one of the following is not a feature of COPD?

1. A. Dyspnea becomes progressively more severe

2. B. Frequent pulmonary infections are common

3. C. Most COPD victims are hypoxic

4. D. Most patients have a genetic predisposition to COPD

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6. Vibration due to exhaled air that results in speech is a function of the___

1. A. Complete voice box

2. B. Epiglottis

3. C. Glottis

4. D. True vocal cords

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7. A patient with sinus congestion points to the area on the inside of the eye as a point of pain. The patient is referring to which sinus?

1. A. Ethmoidal

2. B. Frontal

3. C. Maxillary

4. D. Sphenoidal

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8. The opening between the vocal cords is called the___

1. A. Epiglottis

2. B. Glottis

3. C. Larynx

4. D. Thyroid cartilage

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9. The pharynogotympanic tubes, which drain the middle ear, open into the___

1. A. Laryngopharynx

2. B. Nasopharynx

3. C. Oropharynx

4. D. Palatopharynx

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10.

18. Exchange of both oxygen and carbon dioxide through the respiratory membrane occurs by___

1. A. Active transport

2. B. Simple diffusion

3. C. Facilitated diffusion

4. D. Passive transport

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11. Which one of the following structures is not part of the respiratory zone?

1. A. Alveolar sacs

2. B. Alveoli

3. C. Primary bronchi

4. D. Respiratory bronchioles

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12.

39. The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide from the alveoli into the blood occurs by___

1. A. Active transport

2. B. Diffusion

3. C. Osmosis

4. D. Pinocytosis

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13.

3. Which one of the following is not a function of the paranasal sinuses?

1. A. They act as resonance chambers for speech

2. B. They are olfactory receptors for smell

3. C. They lighten the skull

4. D. They produce mucus

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14. Air moving in and out of the lungs is called____

1. A. Expiration

2. B. External respiration

3. C. Inspiration

4. D. Pulmonary ventilation

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15. The flap of elastic cartilage that protects food from entering the larynx when swallowing is the___

1. A. Adamʹs apple

2. B. Epiglottis

3. C. Glottis

4. D. Thyroid cartilage

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16. Tidal volume, which may not significantly change with disease, has a normal value of approximately___

1. A. 1,000 mL

2. B. 300 mL

3. C. 500 mL

4. D. 800 mL

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17. The maximum volume of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation is known as___

1. A. Expiratory reserve volume

2. B. Inspiratory reserve volume

3. C. Residual volume

4. D. Tidal volume

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18. A very deep inspiration that ventilates all alveoli is___

1. A. Coughing

2. B. Hiccupping

3. C. Sneezing

4. D. Yawning

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19. In order to inspire___

1. A. The diaphragm relaxes

2. B. The external intercostal muscles relax

3. C. The intrapulmonary volume must decrease

4. D. The intrapulmonary volume must increase

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20. The left lung, in contrast to the right lung, has___

1. A. One less lobe

2. B. One more lobe

3. C. The same number of lobes

4. D. Two more lobes

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21.

6. What is the role of mucus in the nasal cavity?

1. A. Act as a resonance chamber for speech

2. B. Increase the air turbulence in the nasal cavity

3. C. Lighten the skull

4. D. Trap incoming bacteria and other foreign debris

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22. Surfactant is usually present in fetal lungs in adequate quantities by___

1. A. 20-22 weeks of pregnancy

2. B. 22-24 weeks of pregnancy

3. C. 26-28 weeks of pregnancy

4. D. 28-30 weeks of pregnancy

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23. Gas exchange between the lungs and blood and between the blood and tissues is called___

1. A. Active transport

2. B. Cellular respiration

3. C. Respiration

4. D. Ventilation

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24. Following the removal of the larynx, a person would be unable to____

1. A. Eat

2. B. Hear

3. C. Sneeze

4. D. Speak

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25. Which one of the following is not true of the lungs___

1. A. The narrower portion of each lung is called the apex

2. B. The bases rest on the diaphragm

3. C. The right lung has three lobes

4. D. Both lungs have two lobes

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26. Which one of the following is not true of inspiration?

1. A. Contraction of the diaphragm muscle helps increase the size of the thoracic cavity

2. B. Increased intrapulmonary volume causes inhaled gases to spread out

3. C. Relaxation of the external intercostal muscles helps increase the size of the thoracic cavity

4. D. The decreased gas pressure produces a partial vacuum that forcibly sucks air in

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27. The purpose of the cilia is to___

1. A. Contract smooth muscle

2. B. Move mucus back to the larynx

3. C. Phagocytize bacteria

4. D. Produce mucus

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28. The walls of the alveoli are composed largely of___

1. A. Pseudostratified epithelium

2. B. Simple cuboidal epithelium

3. C. Simple squamous epithelium

4. D. Stratified cuboidal epithelium

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29. Most carbon dioxide is transported within blood plasma as___

1. A. Bicarbonate ion

2. B. Carbonic acid

3. C. Hydrogen ion

4. D. Oxyhemoglobin

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30.

5. Which one of the following is not a factor influencing respiratory rate and depth?

1. A. Emotional factors

2. B. Enzymatic factors

3. C. Levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide

4. D. Physical exercise

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31. Oxygen binds with hemoglobin in the blood to form___

1. A. Carbon dioxide

2. B. Carbonic acid

3. C. Oxyhemoglobin

4. D. Plasma

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32. Air from the nasal cavity enters the superior portion of the pharynx called the___

1. A. Nasopharynx

2. B. Oropharynx

3. C. Palatopharynx

4. D. Tracheopharynx

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33. The molecule that prevents lung collapse by lowering the surface tension of the water film lining each alveolar sac is called?

1. A. Fibrosin

2. B. Lecithin

3. C. Renin

4. D. Surfactant

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34. The gas exchange that occurs between blood and tissue cells at systemic capillaries is called___

1. A. Expiration

2. B. External respiration

3. C. Internal respiration

4. D. Pulmonary ventilation

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35. Cessation of breathing is called_____

1. A. Apnea

2. B. Eupnea

3. C. Hyperpnea

4. D. Tachypnea

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36.

19. An emotionally-induced response during which air movement is similar to crying is___

1. A. Hiccupping

2. B. Laughing

3. C. Sneezing

4. D. Yawning

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37.

13. When oxygen enters the respiratory system, what is the next structure to which it travels immediately upon leaving the trachea?

1. A. Alveoli

2. B. Bronchioles

3. C. Main (primary) bronchi

4. D. Tertiary bronchi

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38.

4. The respiratory conducting passageways perform all of the following functions except___

1. A. Exchange of gases

2. B. Humidify air

3. C. Purify air

4. D. Warm incoming air

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39. Choose the alveolar cells that secrete surfactant

1. A. Type I cells

2. B. Type II cells

3. C. Type III cells

4. D. Types I and II cells

A. Type I cells comprise the major gas exchange surface of the alveolI. They help in the maintenance of the permeability barrier function of the alveolar membrane._x000D__x000D_B. Type II cells (also known as type II pneumocytes) secrete pulmonary surfactant.

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Endocrine System

Endocrine System Quiz

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1. The hypothalamus produces “releasing hormones”. What do these releasing hormones do?

1. They direct the posterior pituitary to release hormones.

2. They direct the anterior pituitary to release hormones.

3. They direct the gonads to release hormones

4. They act as “second messengers” when hormones bind to their receptor site.

B: The anterior pituitary produces hormones that stimulate other endocrine organs, but the anterior pituitary does not release hormones until directed by the hypothalamus.

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2. What effect does aldosterone have? It causes:

1. Angiotensin to be formed from angiotensinogen

2. Na+ to be secreted into the filtrate

3. Na+ and Ca++ to be absorbed from the filtrate and K+ to be secreted into the filtrate

4. Na+ to be absorbed from the filtrate and K+ to be secreted into the filtrate

D: Aldosterone promotes the absorption of sodium from the filtrate, while potassium (also a positively charged ion) is secreted to maintain electrical neutrality.

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3. What effect does parathyroid hormone have?

1. It increases plasma Ca2+ concentration.

2. It decreases plasma Ca2+ concentration.

3. It increases the rate of ATP formation.

4. It stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine.

A: PTH increases plasma Ca2+ (calcitonin aids in lowering blood calcium).

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4. Which endocrine organ produces “releasing hormones” and “inhibitory hormones”?

1. Thyroid

2. Anterior pituitary

3. Hypothalamus

4. Thalamus

C: The hypothalamus controls the secretion of the anterior pituitary by the use of “releasing hormones” and “inhibitory hormones”.

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5. What is produced by the beta cells of the pancreas?

1. Angiotensin-converting enzyme

2. Glucocorticoids

3. Glucagon

4. Insulin

D: Beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce insulin. The alpha cells produce glucagon.

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6. Which hormone(s) increases the reabsorption of Ca++ from the filtrate in the kidney tubule?

1. Calcitonin

2. Mineralocorticoids

3. Parathyroid hormone

4. Aldosterone

C: PTH causes increased calcium absorption and hence increases blood calcium level.

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7. Which hormone has the element iodine as part of its molecule?

1. Calcitonin

2. Haemoglobin

3. Thyroxine

4. Parathyroid hormone

C: Thyroxine or thyroid hormone contains iodine.

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8. From where are antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin released?

1. The anterior pituitary

2. The posterior pituitary

3. The adrenal cortex

4. The adrenal medulla

B: ADH and OT are produced in the hypothalamus and transported to the posterior pituitary.

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9. To which group of hormones does aldosterone belong?

1. Catecholamines

2. Glucocorticoids

3. Mineralocorticoids

4. Gonadocorticoids

C: As aldosterone is concerned with the absorption of sodium ions, a_x000d_“mineral”, and aldosterone is produced by the adrenal cortex; it is termed a mineralocorticoid.

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10. Which of the following is NOT part of the endocrine system?

1. The thymus

2. The pineal gland

3. The acini cells of the pancreas

4. The posterior pituitary gland

C: The acini cells produce digestive enzymes.

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11. Which of the following is an amino acid derivative hormone?

1. Epinephrine

2. Tyrosine

3. Testosterone

4. Prostaglandin

A: Epinephrine is derived from the amino acid tyrosine (so tyrosine is a wrong answer).

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12. What is the difference between an exocrine gland and an endocrine gland?

1. An endocrine gland secretes neurotransmitters (an exocrine gland does not).

2. An endocrine gland secretes via a tube to the destination (an exocrine gland does not).

3. An exocrine gland secretes into the blood (an endocrine gland does not).

4. An endocrine gland secretes into the blood (an exocrine gland does not).

D: Endocrine glands secrete “circulating” hormones, that is, they are secreted into the blood.

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13. What hormone does the thyroid produce?

1. Thyroid-stimulating hormone

2. Calcitriol

3. Thyroxine

4. Parathyroid hormone

C: Thyroxine (or tetraiodothyronine) is converted to triiodothyronine in_x000D_target tissues.

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14. Which one of the statements below is true?

1. The anterior pituitary produces testosterone from cholesterol and releases it when releasing hormones arrive from the hypothalamus.

2. The hypothalamus produces ADH and oxytocin which are stored in the posterior pituitary.

3. The posterior pituitary contains autonomic centres that exert neural control over the adrenal glands.

4. The thalamus produces ADH and oxytocin which are stored in the anterior pituitary.

B: Testosterone is not produced in the pituitary nor does the pituitary contain autonomic centres.

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15. Which structure is composed of glandular epithelial tissue?

1. The thalamus

2. The anterior pituitary

3. The posterior pituitary

4. The hypothalamus

B: The anterior pituitary produces and releases six hormones.

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16. Which structure controls the endocrine system and integrates the activities of the nervous and endocrine systems?

1. The infundibulum

2. The pituitary gland

3. The thalamus

4. The hypothalamus

D: Hypothalamus secretes regulatory hormones that control endocrine cells in the anterior pituitary gland, produces ADH and oxytocin and contains “autonomic centres” that exert neural control over endocrine cells of the adrenal medullae.

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17. By what term are hormones derived from tyrosine also known?

1. Amino acid derivatives

2. Peptide hormones

3. Steroid hormones

4. Corticosteroids

A: Catecholamines (adrenaline, noradrenaline), dopamine and thyroid hormone are all derived from tyrosine.

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18. Which of the following hormones CANNOT be given orally?

1. Sex hormones

2. Amino acid-based hormones

3. Thyroid hormones

4. Steroids

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19. What effect does aldosterone have?

1. It causes glucose to be absorbed from the blood.

2. It cause Na+ to be absorbed in the kidneys.

3. It causes Ca++ to be absorbed from the gut.

4. It causes K+ to be absorbed from the filtrate.

B: Aldosterone causes reclamation of sodium ions from the filtrate and potassium to be secreted in exchange.

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20. Which statement below is true of steroid hormones?

1. They do not have a specific receptor to bind with.

2. They are not lipid soluble to bind to receptor proteins on the cell membrane.

3. They are lipid soluble so diffuse through the cell membrane.

4. They cross the cell membrane via a carrier mechanism.

C: Steroids are lipid soluble so diffuse through the plasma membrane to bind to a receptor within the cell.

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21. Which statement applies to steroid hormones?

1. They are transported dissolved in blood.

2. They bind to receptor proteins on the outside of the plasma membrane.

3. They cross the plasma membrane by using a protein carrier mechanism.

4. They bind to receptors in the cell cytoplasm or nucleus.

D: As steroid hormones are lipid soluble, their receptors are inside the cell as they can cross the plasma membrane.

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22. Iodine is an essential component of which hormone?

1. Thyroid hormones

2. Aldosterone

3. Thyroid-stimulating hormones

4. Parathyroid hormone

A: Thyroid hormones T3 and T4 contain three and four iodine atoms, respectively.

23 / 25

23. What hormone is produced by the parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland?

1. Parathyroid hormone

2. Calcitonin

3. Thyroid hormone

4. Thyroxine

B: Parafollicular (or “C”) cells of the thyroid produce calcitonin which aids in lowering of blood calcium.

24 / 25

24. Which hormones are soluble in blood?

1. Steroid hormones

2. Hormones produced by the adrenal cortex

3. The sex hormones

4. Those released by the pituitary gland

D: The pituitary gland releases peptide hormones which are soluble in blood. The other choices refer to steroid hormones which are insoluble in blood. They require transport via plasma proteins.

25 / 25

25. Peptide hormones are produced (and/or released) by which structure?

1. The adrenal cortex

2. The gonads

3. The hypothalamus

4. The kidneys

C: The hypothalamus produces peptide hormones.

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